In your case, you basically have single-member LLC’s across the board…you’re just filing 1065’s. For that reason, I don’t think you have any issues in classifying this debt, on OperB’s tax return, as recourse.
And I hear you about this being muddy, hence my comment:
I’m still interested in getting a good analysis on this situation absent those things, because I find the whole thing to be confusing.
If we go back to what we thought was the original scenario [which you posted in the other thread] – two “true” partnerships with identical 80/10/10 partners in each partnership – how would that play out? (And note, this will be your situation when these partnership eventually have more than one partner). In that case, we have one partnership lending to the other partnership. These are related partnerships under 707(b)(1)(B) even when we substitute 50% therein for 80% [related partnerships because the same persons indirectly own 100% of each partnership]. But does that matter? I don’t think it does. I don’t think that’s the relationship we test.
(a)In general. A partner's share of a recourse partnership liability equals the portion of that liability, if any, for which the partner or related person bears the economic risk of loss.That is just part of the Regulation. There are a few ways an EROL (economic risk of loss) is created. One involves a payment obligation (DRO). Another would be a guarantee, although that’s kind of like a payment obligation. Neither are applicable in your case as things presently stand. But, based on how things presently stand, I think the way we might have an EROL in your situation would be with 1.752-2(c). But that talks about a loan by a partner. The loan in your case wasn’t directly made by a partner of OperB to OperB. It was made by another partnership – OperA - to OperB. Therefore, OperA directly bears the risk of the loss, because OperA holds the receivable. If the loan goes bad, OperA doesn’t get repaid. It theoretically charges off the receivable and takes a bad debt deduction, which passes up to the Holdco’s. That is, the risk of loss gets borne by 50% by HoldingA and 50% by HoldingB. And from there, it gets 100% borne by A, B and C, collectively. So, it sure does seem that we’d classify this debt as recourse and move it up the chain. But when you research the issue, it is far from clear that this is the result. It sure seems like we need to test relatedness between the (1) partners of the borrowing entity [OperB] and (2) the lending entity [OperA]. Again, this all assumes we’re dealing with regarding entities here, but we’re not in your case, since C owns 100% of everything.
I go back that Example #5 in the Proposed Reg (which was the same example in the old regs, they just moved it to a new place). In that example, if A and B made their loans directly to ABC, they’d be recourse, with A’s loan being allocated to A and B’s loan being allocated to B. So they get crafty and form AB partnership, and then run the loan between AB and ABC. The relatedness they test there, for A’s loan, I believe, is: relationship of A to AB. A doesn’t own 80% of AB, so A and AB are not “related.” Ditto for B and AB. So the two loans would be non-recourse. But since the loans were structured to avoid related party status, the Example concludes that A’s loan is recourse and so is B’s.