If big pharma pays the guy XXX for his services, XXX appears to be reasonable comp for those services.
Reasonable Comp isn’t a concept we apply in the sole-proprietorship area. But to play along, if big pharma pays the “guy” (a sole proprietor) $X, then there is no way for the guy to report anything other than $X.
Now, if guy forms an S-corporation and big pharma pays the S-corporation, the dynamic has changed. We now have a corporation that might have a valuable asset – we have a client/client list and either a contract with big pharma or some less formal “relationship.” While these assets don’t show up on the S’s Balance Sheet, they are assets nonetheless. Somebody might be willing to pay the corporation for those assets in an asset purchase, for example. A purchaser would do so because the purchaser expects those assets (i.e. the investment) to generate a return. If S-corp holds those assets, there is no reason the shareholders shouldn’t be entitled to a return on those (intangible) assets all the same. This is so even if the shareholder invested $0 in the corporation. If a sole shareholder’s service-based S-corporation is really worth $1m, that shareholder has $1m of his personal net worth tied up in the S-corp. That is a fact.
So in a nutshell, your take is: whatever an independent contractor gets paid equals reasonable comp?
That seems to be his take, and the conventional wisdom, but it ain’t right because it makes no sense. It ignores the fact that corporations have intrinsic asset value that create an investment return