Hi All -
I have have been focusing more on outsourced accounting services, so I haven't had a lot of tax questions lately...but here's one that is baking my noodle.
I have a client whose tax preparer has been using a strictly cash basis for prior year returns (s-corp). And by strictly cash, I mean essentially netting the cash change as profits (with the normal exceptions of any company) and no treatment of uncompleted contracts at year end as related assets and liabilities. (i.e. a retainage received just prior to year and would increase taxable profit by the same amount)
This has worked just fine in prior years, but this year it looks like it will create a significant tax liability for the s/h's.
In researching how this could be treated, I came across the Completed Contract Method (https://www.law.cornell.edu/cfr/text/26/1.460-5).
It seems they would qualify as they are a homebuilder with well under the $25MM threshold.
I also found this thread (viewtopic.php?f=8&t=13726&p=123939&hilit=construction+method#p123939), which elucidated that it's not cash to accrual or anything similar, but simply the method to account for long term contracts.
My question is this: Am I correct in assuming that to use the CCM would necessitate a change in accounting method - specifically the method for treatment for long-term contracts? And if so, does anyone have any insight as to under what DCN (form 3115) would this be? All of the ones that I can find, specify either being an accrual taxpayer or changing from the PoC method
You guys are the best. Thank you all. I hope the 2020 season is BOOMING!