JAD wrote:I strongly disagree. Just because the acceptance began during the Trump years doesn't mean that it was not politically motivated.
The way the law was written, there was no option but to rule this way, and to rule in a different manner would be political. My point is that whomever was in decision-making positions at the Treasury during the Trump Administration made the correct ruling, whether it was in alignment with their own personal politics or not, and the IRS is continuing to make the correct ruling under the Biden Administration.
The IRS should no longer be allowed to challenge anything under substance over form or any of the other doctrines that it uses to collapse supposedly separate steps into one transaction.
This is ridiculous on its face. This is not a taxpayer attempting to take multiple steps to avoid taxation; it's about a state making its own laws and tax elections and how the IRS evaluates the state statute under federal law.
For decades prior to TCJA, Wisconsin has allowed federal S corporations to elect to be taxed in Wisconsin as a C corporation. Likewise, there are states which have long required a separate S corporation election to be filed and if a federal S corporation does not make the state election, it is a C corporation under state law. And many states have long levied taxes based on a business' income, receipts, net worth, property, etc. In each of these cases the taxpayer would have rightfully had a deduction for state taxes on the federal business return. So if a state enacts a new tax on business income that is in alignment with existing tax law deductions, it's entitled to a federal deduction, even if it's being done as a reaction to a federal law. To rule otherwise would be to attempt to override the ability for states to enact taxes at all (in the case of CT's pass-through tax) or to even limit the ability for states to create tax elections (in the case of WI and CA).
To use an example that is a bit less politically charged, Wisconsin lawmakers would have been aware of what the federal tax consequences would be when it converted from a separate property state to a community property state in 1986. Would it have been right for the IRS to say that WI taxpayers should be denied the double step-up in basis of marital property because the law is new? Or, to use an example maybe more familiar to you, would it be correct for the IRS to deny community property treatment for those who choose to enter into registered domestic partnerships under CA law?
And it is another screwing of the wage earner.
I don't disagree with that. But, that's how the TCJA was written
shrugs shoulders