Thanks for the replies. This is very helpful. It’s interesting and confusing because there are so many different answers.
Nilodop- so because there is a debt instrument with adequate interest but no interest was paid and is compounded, income is included to the shareholder as OID. And, the corp can take an interest expense deduction regardless of their accounting method, correct?
But absent a debt instrument with adequate interest (which we may all see from time to time in this practice) between shareholder and corporation -267 and 7872 would apply. So we would see interest income imputed to the lender with no corresponding deduction if not paid by cash basis corporation. However, seems that accrual basis corporation would have an interest expense that would not be disallowed since the shareholder is recognizing income?
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