Client stated that they invested a total of $12k (as a passive investor) in a local restaurant that has since closed permanently. I asked the client whether this was an equity investment or debt. They stated that they’d get 10% of gross sales. I told them that this sounded like an equity investment and if this were a partnership or S Corp, they should request a Schedule K-1 from the individual who organized this business.
They requested a K-1 from this individual and the individual told them “because I’m a sole proprietorship/LLC and the business isn’t an S corp or partnership, that we don’t need to issue a k-1”. Because the investment sounded like an equity buy-in to the business, I asked my client to forward a copy of the agreement for review.
The top of the agreement says “SHARE PURCHASE AGREEMENT” and it refers to the business as a “corporation” and the new investor as a “stockholder” and in exchange for $12k, the stockholder would get two shares and another provision states “Dividends of 5% of gross sales per share will be distributed on the 5th of each month”.
After review of this agreement, this business at a minimum is clearly NOT a single-member LLC disregarded for tax purposes. The verbiage makes it seem like it’s either a C Corp or an S Corp, but may even be a partnership if they never actually elected corporate status. I asked them if this contract was drawn up by an attorney because of the many apparent conflicts with this agreement. They said no, which is no surprise here.
Therefore, my question is, if the client had never elected corporate status, does the fact that this contract refers to the business as a “corporation” make the contract void? If so, does this automatically also disqualify it from being considered a partnership too? Aside from the legal implications, how does this agreement (that clearly has many flaws) affect how to report this for tax purposes? Anyone had any similar situations?