Does it become entity level interest?
See the Lipnick case, which involved a gift of an interest. I think one question here is how to report the interest expense to the new partner. One option is to separately state it and then that partner makes his own decision. But query here if the DFD rules have been foreclosed upon acquisition. It’s kind of a weird animal…where if we don’t separately state it, we are effectively stating that the DFD rules don’t apply. In addition, we are making a decision as the preparer. That might not be wrong, however.
The DFD was essentially an advance of the partnership interest sale due to the economics of how that interest is valued.
I get it, but I don’t think it’s a holistic analysis, per se. You do touch on how the interest is valued, which would of course impact the purchaser. And when viewed from the purchaser’s standpoint, that debt that is now allocated to him was, effectively, factored into the cost of his acqusition. And what did he acquire? Partnership assets, if we look within. So, if we were to trace, we’d trace to the nature of the partnership’s assets. If they’re ordinary assets, the incoming partner has an ordinary deduction. How that gets presented, I leave it up to you. What you really have here is a new partner taking on debt to make an acquisition of a partnership interest. We all know the rules there: Trace to the assets of the partnership and deduct the interest accordingly. The weird thing about this situation is that the debt is internal, not external. While that is true with any other partnership that has entity level debt, what we have here is a single debt whose treatment is not uniform for all partners. In short, I think the normal tracing rules of 89-35 apply, but the reporting of the interest expense and who makes decisions surrounding it is the odd-ball.